4 Comments
  1. fresno dan says

    “you cannot run a current account surplus unless you are also a net exporter of capital, and since the rest of China is actually a net importer of capital, the PBoC must export huge amounts of capital in order to maintain China’s trade surplus.”

    I am not following that. Is the (capital) currency used in the rest of China somehow different that the (capital) currency that the PBoC uses?

    1. Edward Harrison says

      Hey Dan, what Michael is pointing out is that for every transaction there is a goods/service side and a money side. The two are exactly equivalent in value. To the degree two parties transact and one has a net surplus of money from the aggregate of all their transactions, then the other party must have an equivalent net surplus of goods/services of equal value. The goods/services are represented by the current account and the money/currency is represented by the capital account.

      So you can’t run a current account (goods/services) surplus unless you also have a capital account (money/currency) deficit i.e. unless you are an EXporter of capital. China has a huge amount of net foreign direct investment i.e. the business sector is a net IMporter of capital investment. So the central bank must be an even bigger EXporter of capital (buyer of foreign financial assets) to maintain the surplus.

      Implicit in all this is the currency peg level. If the peg were higher, the PBoC would not need to Export so much capital (buy up so many dollars) because the trade imbalance would be lower. Michael’s statement is another way of showing that the PBoC’s accumulation of dollar assets is a direct result of a currency peg which contributes greatly to a trade imbalance.

      1. fresno dan says

        Thank you very much for the explantion – very helpful about the current account and capital account.

        However, there are still a few things that seem inconsistent:

        “The two are exactly equivalent in value”
        Value – theres the rub. Nominally, or in ‘reality’?
        Because on the one hand, to the extent I can understand any of this (and obviously not very much) the point seems to be “currency manipulation.”
        So say I sell you 100$ worth of stuff, and wink-wink, I will buy your collection of 2003 pennies (or bonds – choose anything of nominal value)at say a premium of – Oh I don’t know, 1.3 cents for each rare 2003 penney in your collection thereby reducing the “price” of whatever I sold you from 100$ to 50$ (in real terms, whatever that could possibly mean).
        So what? China sells us stuff and gives us a coupon (HA HA – thats a bond joke…I guess I better keep my day job) for 25% off. We’re still buying and they’re still selling. And isn’t “manipulation” meaning that we don’t know what is going on????

        I am not a anti OR PRO free trader. It just seems to me in all these discussions that some of the terms and logic is a bit inconsistent.
        Say China raised the value of their currency. We buy less from China, but China has more “money” (supposedly at a higher value?). Workers in the US make more T-shirts, but the T-shirts cost much, much more (look at the income of Chinese versus US – that has to be reflected in the T-shirt price)- – fewer T-shirsts, fewer US workers making them. Few T-shirts are exported to China. We’re not POORER – we have jobs and income we would not have had, had the T-shirts been imported. But I doubt we’re RICHER either – we have less T-shirts.
        Finally, I would note that the trade with China is supposedly ?2.7? (according to San Francisco Fed) to ?5%? of US GDP. Seems its not a make or break part of the economy.

        So I guess my point is: hmmmm….Uh? Er…
        Well, isn’t it like debating the cost of a box of cereal – I buy the box and can’t be bothered with coupons, and you buy a box with a 1$ off coupon. What is the real price? I imagine for both you and me, a buck doesn’t matter much…(and I could go on and on about how much total cerel you eat, that I don’t eat cereal cause its bad….)

  2. fresno dan says

    “ou cannot run a current account surplus unless you are also a net exporter of capital, and since the rest of China is actually a net importer of capital, the PBoC must export huge amounts of capital in order to maintain China’s trade surplus.”

    I am not following that. Is the capital (?currency?) used in China different than the capital (currency?) used for export?

Comments are closed.

This website uses cookies to improve your experience. We'll assume you're ok with this, but you can opt-out if you wish. Accept Read More